63 Objective Questions on Indian Polity & Governance in Constitution (Civil Service Examination)

1. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India? [1995]

1. The National Development Council

2. The Governor’s Conference

3. Zonal Councils

ADVERTISEMENTS:

4. Inter-State Council

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1,3and4

ADVERTISEMENTS:

2. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states? [1995]

1. Election of the President

2. Representation of states in Parliament

3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule

ADVERTISEMENTS:

4. Abolition of the Legislature Council of a State

Codes:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4

3.Council of states	House of the People
Not more than 250 members	Not more than 552 members
Not more than 238 representatives of States and Union Territories	Not more than 530 representative of states plus not more than 2 nominated Anglo-Indians plus X

ADVERTISEMENTS:

Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’? [1995]

(a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office

(b) Not more than 20 nominated members

ADVERTISEMENTS:

(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament

4. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? [1995]

(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament

(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament

(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature

5. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it? [1995]

(a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar

6. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this? [1995]

1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term

2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years

Codes:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

7. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention? [1995]

(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House

(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House

(d) In the event of both the President and the’ Vice-President demitting office simultaneously before the end of the tenure the Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President

8. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the President but does not forum for his impeachment?

(a) Lok Sabha [1996]

(b) Rajya Sabha

(d) State Legislative Assemblies

9. Which one of the following statements w.r.t. the duties of Prime Minister are correct? [1996]

(a) Is free to choose his minister only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament

(b) Can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India, in this regard

(d) Has only limited power in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested with the President of India?

10. Which one of the following was not proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj? [1997]

(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies

(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions

(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children

(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government.

11. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament: [1997]

(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion

(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House

(d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister

12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three per-cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional amendment: Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct? [1997]

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

13. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousands in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means the population as ascertained by the: [1997]

(a) 1991 Census (b) 1981 Census

14. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India? [1997]

1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament

2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both 1 and 2,

15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: [1997]

List I (Functionaries)

A. President of India

B. Judges of Supreme Court

C. Members of Parliament

D. Minister for the Union

List II (Oaths or affirmations)

1. Secrecy of information

2. Faithful Discharge of duties

3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India

4. Upholding the Constitution and the law

Codes:

(a) A-3, B-4-C-1 D-2 (b) A-4, B-3,C-2, D-1

16. In the following quotation, “WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:

JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the Individual and the unity and the integrity of the National. In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.”, ‘X’ stands for:

[1997]

(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950

(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949

(d) None of the above

17. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act? [1998]

(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule

18. The Constitution of India recognises: [1999]

(a) only religious minorities

(b) only linguistic minorities

(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities

19. Consider the following statements:

An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the: [1999]

1. LokSabha 2. RajyaSabha

3. State Legislature 4. President

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [1999]

(a) 1 alone (b) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996: [1999]

1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction

2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha

3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency

4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4

21. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct? [2000]

(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament

(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not

(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration

22. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the: [2000]

(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed men and women in rural area

(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural reason

(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person equality before law and equal protection without discrimination

23. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as: [2000]

(a) decorum (b) crossing the floor

24. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India: [2000]

1. He is appointed by the President of India

2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court

3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament

4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

25. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to: [2000]

(a) distribution revenue between the Centre and the States

(b) prepare the Annual Budget

(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments

26. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education? [2001]

(a) Article 349 (b) Article 350

27. Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of India? [2001]

(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India

(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts

(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer

28. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2001]

(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states

(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution

(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

29. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2001]

List I (Amendments to the Constitution)

A. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991

B. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 1994

C. The Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment) Act, 2000

D. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000

List II

1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals

2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh

3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local level

4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission

5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi

Codes:

(a) A-5,B-1,C-4,D-2 (b) A-1,B-5,C-3,D-4

30. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended? [2001]

(a) First (b) Second

31. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2001]

A. Article 54

B. Article 75

C. Article 155

D. Article 164

List II (Content)

1. Election of the President of India

2. Appointment of the Prime Minister

3. Appointment of the Governor of a State

4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State

5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies

Codes:

(a) A-1, B-2.C-3, D-4 (b) A-1, B-2,C-4, D-5

32. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Planning Commission is accountable statement

(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session

(d) National development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of ail the States

33. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers? [2002]

(a) 39th (b) 40th

34. The term of the Lok Sabha: [2002]

(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances

(b) can be extended by six months at a time

(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency

35. 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the: [2002]

(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment

(b) free and compulsory education for all children be been the age of 6 and 14 years

(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States

36. Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2002]

List I (Article of Indian Constitution)

A. Article 16(2)

B. Article 29 (2)

C. Article 30 (I)

D. Article 31(1)

List II (Provisions)

1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law

2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste

3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them

Codes:

(a) A-2, B-4, C-3,D-1 (c) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4

(b) A-3, B-1,C-2, D-4 (d) A-3, B-4,C-2, D-1

37. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by: [2003]

(a) First Amendment

(b) Eighth Amendment

(d) Forty Second Amendment

38. Consider the following statements: [2003]

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution

2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961

3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill

Which of these statements is correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

39. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002) ? [2003]

(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122

40. Under which Article of the Indian President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002) ? [2003]

(a) Article 142 (b) Article 143

41. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’? [2003]

(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275

List I (Item in the Indian Constitution)

A. Directive Principles of State Policy

B. Fundamental Rights

C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations

D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union

List II (Country from which it was derived)

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. Ireland

4. United Kingdom

5. United States of America

Codes:

(a) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2 (b) A-3, B-5,C-2, D-1

43. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each. House of the Indian Parliamentary separately by special majority? [2003]

(a) Ordinary Bill

(b) Money Bill

(d) Constitution Amendment Bill

44. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States? [2003]

(a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th

45. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories? [2003]

(a) First (b) Second

46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2004]

a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States

b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution

c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas

d) It allocates seats in the Council of States

47. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct? [2004]

a) the Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law

b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act

c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation.

d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

48. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercise as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union? [2004]

(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258

49. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [2004]

List I

A. Article 14

B. Article 15

C. Article 16

D. Article 17

List II

1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of term

2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India

3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any from is forbidden

4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State

Codes:

(a) A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3 (b) A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2

50. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall the employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’? [2004]

(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45

51. Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. Part IX of the Constitution of India provisions for Panchyats and was inserted by the constitution (Amendment) Act 1992.

2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [2005]

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

52. Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. Article 371 A to 371 1 were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa.

2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.

3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3

53. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to: [2005]

(a) empowering the canter to levy and appropriate service tax

(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission

54. Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. The constitution of India has 40 parts.

2. There are 390 Articles in the constitution of India in all.

3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

55. What does the 104111 Constitution Amendement Bill related to? [2006]

(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain states.

(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India.

(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the central Government.

56. Which one among the following commission was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India? [2006]

(a) University Grants Commission

(b) National Human Rights Commission

(d) Central Vigilance Commission

57. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively? [2007]

(a) 91^st (b) 93^rd

58. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? [2008]

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health

Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

59. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? [2008]

(a) Third (b) Fifth

60. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22? [2008]

(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act

(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act

(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act

61. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements: [2009]

1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.

2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

62. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People? [2009]

(a) 90th (b) 91st

63. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following: [2010] \

1. Fundamental rights

2. Fundamental Duties

3. Directive Principles of State Policy

Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India I is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the government of India?

(a) 1 only (b) 3 only

Answers:

1. (a) Best answer is 1, 2&3. Because only Inter state council is a constitutional body under article 263. So option 4 should not be included.

2. (a) According to article 169, abolition of the legislative council of the states does not need the ratification of not less than Vi of the states. Therefore 4 should not be included in the answer.

3. (c) As per provisions given under article 81.

4. (d) As per provisions given under article 80 & 81.

5. (d) There are only five states with Bicameral legislature

(Legislative assembly as well as Legislative Council) – UP, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Jammu & Kashmir

6. (d) Statement 1 is incorrect as article 156(1) provides that the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the Resident and therefore can be removed from the office by the President anytime. Statement 2 is also incorrect, as under article 156(3), Governor shall continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

7. (b) PM resigns, if he loses majority in the house is a convention and not mentioned in the constitution. Conventions are those unwritten practices which are regarded legally binding on the three organs of State.

8. (d) According to article 54, electoral college of President includes elected members of LS, RS and State legislative assemblies. Under article 61, Members of State legislative assemblies do not take part in the process of impeachment.

9. (c) PM has the full discretion to choose his ministers in the Cabinet not necessarily from the two Houses of Parliament but can also choose any other person. That person should become member of either house with in 6 months from the date he enters the office.

10. (c) Statement given under option c is not mentioned in 73rd amendment act. But now this norm is applied in the states of Haryana, Rajasthan, MP, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh.

11. (a) Because no-confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (not in RS) by the opposition.

12. (d) Assertion is wrong as reservation for women in Parliament and state legislature require constitutional amendment.

13. (c) The expression “population” in 1997 (and even in Presidential elections of 2007) means population as ascertained by 1971 census.

14. (b) Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under article 59. Statement 2 is correct as according to article 79, Parliament shall consist of President and two Houses.

15. (c) Oath or affirmation by the President under article 60; Oath or affirmation by Judge of SC, Members of Parliament, Ministers for the Union comes under Third schedule of the Constitution.

16. (b) The Constitution of India was enacted on Nov. 26, 1949 but it was commenced on Jan. 26, 1950.

17. (d)Tenth schedule was added by 52nd constitutional amendment act 1985. It provides for anti-defection law.

18. (c) The Constitution of India recognizes religious and linguistic minorities under article 29&30 (Cultural & Educational rights). However, does not define the term Minority in the Constitution.

19. (d) An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by either House of Parliament under article 368. It does not require President’s recommendation.

20. (b) Statement 3 is incorrect as a candidate shall not be allowed to contest from more than two constituencies.

21. (a) A Money bill can be introduced only in LS (not in RS) that too on the recommendation of the President.

22. (c) 73rd amendment act added eleventh schedule to the Constitution and Part IX, which provides for Panchayati Raj System.

23. (d) Decorum means maintaining proper behavior. Interpellation means formal right of a Parliament to submit formal question to the government. Crossing the floor means vote against the party lines.

24. (a)Under article 76, impeachment procedure of Attorney- General is not provided. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.

25. (c) A per provision given under article 280(3).

26. (c) Article 350A was inserted by 7^th constitutional amendment act 1956. Article 349 – Special procedure for enactment of certain laws relating to language; Article 350 – Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances; Article 351 – Directive for development of the Hindi language

27. (d) as per provisions under article 149.

28. (d) Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha.

29. (a)

30. (a) First schedule contains names of the States and UTs, that’s why it should be amended, if a new state is created.

31. (a)

32. (a) President can make ordinance only when both houses of parliament are not in session (art 123). No minimum age is prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court in the Constitution The age of a Judge of the SC shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as parliament may by law provide NDC is composed of the PM as its head, all Union Cabinet ministers, the CMs of all states, CMs/Administrators of all UTs, the members of the Planning Commission.

33. (d) 44^th amendment act, 1978 amended article 74( 1) to insert the above provision.

34. (c) The term of the LS can be extended by not more than one year at a time during the proclamation of national emergency under article 352.

35. (b) 93^rd Constitutional amendment bill (86^th amendment act 2002) inserted article 21 A, amended article 45 and inserted eleventh Fundamental duty. All are related to education.

36. (a) These are Fundamental rights under Part III of the constitution.

37. (a) Ninth schedule was added by First amendment act of 1951, which relates to Land Reforms.

38. (d) So far three joint sittings have been held, First was held on Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961, Second was held on Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978 and Third was held on Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002. The presiding officer of joint sitting is Speaker of Lok Sabha.

39. (c) President enjoys ordinance making power under article 123.

40. (b) Article 143 provides power of the President to consult Supreme Court.

41. (d)

Art 215: High Court to be court of Record; Art 275: Grants from the Union to certain States; Art 325: in relation to elections.

42. (d)

43. (d) As per provisions under article 368.

44. (c) 7^th amendment act 1956 provides for composition of the House of the people & re-adjustment after every census. 31^s‘ amendment act 1973 provides for raising the upper limit for the representation of states in the Lok Sabha from 500 to 525 and reducing the upper limit for the representation of UTs from 25 to 20.

45. (a) Second schedule deals with salaries, emoluments etc; Third schedule deals with oaths or affirmations; Fourth schedule deals with allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.

46. (d) Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e., Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament).

47. (a) Appropriation Bill is a money bill. In case of money bill, RS is having only recommendatory power that’s why need not to be passed by RS.

48. (a) Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers etc on States in certain cases; Article 355: Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance; Article 358: Suspension of provisions of article 19 during emergencies

49. (c) These are Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution.

50. (a) Article 24 is a Fundamental Right under Part III of the constitution.

51. (a) Part IX and Eleventh Schedule were added by 73^rd constitutional amendment act, 1992 which contain provisions for Panchayats. Part IX A and Twelveth schedule were added by 74^th Constitutional amendment act, 1992 which contain provisions for Municipalities but article 243 Q envisages three types of municipalities: Nagar Panchayats for a transitional area, Municipal Council for smaller urban areas and Municipal Corporation for larger urban areas.

52. (d) The Constitution of India envisages a single policy for both Union and the States. A naturalized citizen is one who acquires citizenship either by Naturalization or by Registration. They can be deprived of citizenship if acquired citizenship by using fraudulent means.

53. (b) It is 98^th amendment Bill (and not act) which is related to the constitution of National Judicial Commission. A bill becomes an act after getting President’s assent.

54. (c) The Constitution of India has 24 parts. 12 schedules and more than 444 articles at present In the original constitution, there were 22 parts. 8 schedules and 395 articles. Ninth Schedule was added by 1^st Constitutional amendment act, 1951. Tenth Schedule was added by 52^nd Constitutional amendment act, 1985. Eleventh Schedule was added by 73^rd Constitutional amendment act, 1992. Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th Constitutional amendment act, 1992.

55. (c) 104th amendment bill or 93rd amendment act 2006 added article 15(5) in the constitution which provides for provision given under option-(c).

56. (c) As per provisions given under article 324.

57. (a) The above provision has been added by 91st constitutional amendment act 2003.

58. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as it is a Fundamental right under article 23 of Part III of the constitution. Statement 2 corresponds to Directive principles of State Policy under article 47 under Part IV of the constitution.

59. (b) Fifth schedule relates to the control and administration of scheduled areas in states other than Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya& Mizoram. While Sixth schedule deals with administration and control of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram & Tripura.

60. (c) 92nd amendment act 2003 added Bodo, Santhali, Maithali & Dogri languages in the 8th schedule of the constitution. Originally there were 14 languages in the 8th schedule. 21st amendment act added Sindhi language. 71st amendment act added Konkani, Manipuri & Nepali languages.

61. (d) Statement 1 is incorrect as members of RS are also eligible to become cabinet ministers. Statement 2 is incorrect as Cabinet secretariat is under the direct charge of the PM.

62. (b) The above provision has been added by 91st constitutional amendment act 2003

63. (b) The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) which came into effect from 15th August. 1995 represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 (Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases) of the Constitution.