52 Objective Questions on Indian Polity & Governance in Political System (Civil Service Examination)

ADVERTISEMENTS:

1. Which one of the following is Correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India? [1995]

(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission

(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States

ADVERTISEMENTS:

(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned

(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission

2. Which of the following are the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit? [1995]

(a) West Bengal and Kerala

ADVERTISEMENTS:

(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra

(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa

(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka

3. Which of the followings political parties is/are national political parties? [1995]

ADVERTISEMENTS:

1. Muslims League

2. Revolutionary Socialist Party

3. All India Forward Block

4. Peasants and Workers Party of India Codes:

ADVERTISEMENTS:

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 only (d) None

4. If in an election to a State legislative assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that: [1995]

(a) the polling was very poor

ADVERTISEMENTS:

(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency

(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal

(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election

5. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be : [1995]

(a) 21 (b) 14

(c) 7 (d) 6

6. Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time? [1996]

(a) Boycott (b) Gherao

(c) Bandh (d) Hartal

7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.

Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? [1996]

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

8. Which one of the following countries had more or less evolved a two-party system? [1996]

(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh

(c) Pakistan (d) Myanmar

9. In which one of the following countries will the no- confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the simultaneously a majority to elect successor government? [1997]

(a) France (b) Germany

(c) Italy (d) Portugal

10. Proportional representation is not necessary in a country where: [1997]

(a) there are no reserved constituencies

(b) a two-party system has developed

(c) the first past-post system prevails

(d) there is a fusion of presidential and Parliamentary forms of government

11. State funding of elections takes place in: [1997]

(a) U.S.A and Canada

(b) Britain and Switzerland

(c) France and Italy

(d) Germany and Austria

12. The concept of public Interest litigation originated in: [1997]

(a) United Kingdom (b) Australia

(c) The United States (d) Canada

13. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has: [1998]

(a) both a real and a nominal executive

(b) a system of collective responsibility

(c) bicameral legislature

(d) the system of judicial review

14. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing International treaties: [2000]

(a) with the consent of all the State

(b) with the consent of the majority of States

(c) with the consent of the States concerned

(d) without the consent of any State

15. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is: [2000]

(a) Bihar (b) Gujarat

(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh

16. Consider the following functionaries: [2000]

1. Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Minister

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence in the Order of Precedence is:

(a) 3,4,2,1 (b) 4,3,1,2

(c) 4,3,2,1 (d) 3,4,1,2

17. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration? [2001]

(a) Through Parliamentary Committees

(b) Through Consultative Committees Of various ministries

(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports

(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs

18. In which one of the following areas does the State Government not have control over its local bodies?[2001]

(a) Citizens’ grievances (b) Financial matters

(c) Legislation (d) Personnel matters

19. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India: [2001]

1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties

2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission

3. A national level political party is one which is recognized in four or more states

4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election commission

Which of this statement are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and4 (d) 1,2,3 and4

20. Consider the following statements with reference to India: [2002]

1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries

2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court

3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court

4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he’ attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

21. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish: [2002]

(a) political democracy

(b) social democracy

(c) Gandhian democracy

(d) social and economic democracy

22. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security? [2002]

(a) 51 (b) 48 A

(c) 43 A (d) 41

23. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SCI ST Category candidates respectively is: [2002]

(a) Rupees 5,000 and Rupees 2,500

(b) Rupees 10,000 and Rupees 2,500

(c) Rupees 10,000 and Rupees 5,000

(d) Rupees 15,000 and Rupees 7,500

24. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members

(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha

(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister

(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections

25. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence? [2003]

(a) Deputy Prime Minister

(b) Former President

(c) Governor of a State within his State

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

26. Consider the following statements: [2003]

The function(s) of the Finance commission is/are:

1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India

2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes

3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States

4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4

27. Consider the following statements: [2003]

In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,

1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals

State Population / Number of Elected MLAs of the State x 100

2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals to total value of the votes of all elected MLA’s and Total number of elected MP’s

3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2

(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3

28. Consider the following statements: [2003]

1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha

2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs

3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Board and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

29. Survey of India is under the Ministry of: [2003]

(a) Defence (b) Environment and Forests

(c) Home Affairs (d) Science and Technology

30. Consider the following tasks: [2004]

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections

2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, state Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President

3. Giving recognition to political, parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.

4. Proclamation of final verdict in the centre of election disputes

Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 4

31. Consider the following statements: [2004]

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House,

2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President

3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

32. Which one of the following statements is not correct? [2004]

(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based

(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules

(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted

(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence

33. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the: [2004]

(a) Lok Sabha alone

(b) Either House of Parliament

(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament

(d) Rajya Sabha alone

34. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? [2004]

(a) Forests: Concurrent List

(b) Stock Exchange: Concurrent List

(c) Post Office Savings Bank: Union List

(d) Public Health State List

35. Consider the following statements: [2004]

1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India

2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council

3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

36. Consider the following events: [2004]

1. Fourth general elections in India

2. Formation of Haryana State

3. Mysore named as Karnataka State

4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?

(a) 2,1,4,3 (b) 4,3,2,1

(c) 2,3,4,1 (d) 4,1,2,3

37. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the food and Nutrition Board work? [2005]

(a) Ministry of Agriculture

(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(d) Ministry of Rural Development

38. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? [2005]

(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani

(c) Jawaharalal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

39. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ? [2006]

(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields

(b) Agriculture

(c) Fisheries

(d) Public health

40. Consider the following statements: [2006]

1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.

2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

41. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Reason (R): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government. [2007]

(a) Both A are R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

42. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha? [2007]

(a) Hukam Singh (b) G V Mavalankar

(c) K M Munshi (d) UN Dhebar

43. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India: [2007]

1. A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.

2. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

44. Consider the following statements: [2007]

1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice- President of India? [2008]

1. Mohammad Hidayatullah

2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

4. Shankar Dayal Sharma

Select the correct answer using the code given below: Codes:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only

46. Consider the following statements: [2008] The Constitution of India provides that

1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State

2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor2

47. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements: [2009]

1. The Ministries Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.

2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements: [2009]

1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.

2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following statements: [2009]

1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri.

2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements: [2009]

1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.

2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. Consider the following statements: [2010]

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact

1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).

2. if he seeks such an advice.

3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) 3 (d) 1 and2

52. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct? [2010]

(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.

(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman

(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.

(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general.

Answers:

1. (a)

2. (*) The chief minister is in the ambit of lok Ayukta is state of Madhya pradesh, Himachal pradesh, Andhra predesh and Gujarat while CM is excluded from it jurisdiction in Maharastra, Uttar pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar and Orissa. According to this information, no option is correct. So there is no answer for it.

3. (d)

4. (d) The winner loses his deposit, if he gets less than 10% of the valid votes polled. When a very large number of candidates contest the election, due to distribution of votes, winning candidate may get less than 10% of votes.

5. (*) Incomplete question. According to article 330 of the constitution, Reservation of seats for SCs in a state depends upon the population of SCs in that very state. In this question no data is provided for percentage of SC population. That’s why the number of reserved seats for SCs can not predicted.

6. (a) Captain Charles Cunningham Boycott was a British land agent whose ostracism by his local community in Ireland as part of a campaign for agrarian tenants’ rights in 1880 gave the English language the verb to boycott, meaning “to ostracise”.

7. (b) Both statements are correct but not explains. At Present, Minorities Commission is having Statutory status. 103rd Constitutional amendment bill provides for granting constitutional status to the minorities commission. But still not passed by the Houses of Parliament.

8. (b) Awami League and BNP are two major parties in Bangladesh.

9. (b) This process is followed in Germany and known as Constructive vote of no-confidence motion.

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (c) PIL originated in USA. It seeks to protect and promote interest of the public at large.

13. (d) The system of Judicial review is feature of Indian and US Parliamentary syatem (not the British Parliamentary system).

14. (d) It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under article 253 of the Constitution.

15. (d) Madhya Pradesh is the state, where largest number of seats reserved for scheduled tribe in Lok Sabha.

16. (c) Chief Justice of India, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Election Commissioner, Cabinet Secretary is the correct order of precedence.

17. (a) Parliamentary committees are formed to dispose off the large volume of work in time as well as with detailed scrutiny. There appointment, terms of office as well as functions etc are regulated by provisions under article 118(1). These are of 2 kinds: Standing committees and ad-hoc committees.

18. (a) The State government does not have control over its local bodies in case of Citizens’ grievances.

19. (d) All the statements are correct.

20. (b) The Chief election commissioner and other election commissioners enjoy equal powers as well as salaries. The term of office of the Election commissioner is 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years or whichever is earlier.

21. (d) The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish the social and economic democracy. Where as political democracy is established by the Fundamental Rights.

22. (a)This comes under Directive Principles of state policy under part IV of the constitution.

23. (c)As per the given options the right answer is (c). But now for General candidates the amount of security deposit is 20,000. In case of elections of state legislatures, the amount of security deposit is as given in option (a) above.

24. (c)In Rajya sabha 12 members are nominated by the President from the persons who are having special knowledge in art, science, literature and social service. In Lok Sabha 2 members are nominated by the President from the Anglo-Indian community (art 331). Anominated member can vote only in the vice-presidential elections.

25. (c)Order of precedence is President, Vice President, PM, Governor of State within their respective states, Former President & Deputy PM, CJI & Speaker of LS.

26. (b)

27. (b) Value of vote of an elected MLA equals to State population. No. of elected MLAs of the State 1000

28. (a)

29. (d) Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science & Technology, is the oldest scientific department of the Govt. of India. It was set up in 1767.

30. (a) The High Court (and not the Election Commission) is the final authority to proclaim a final verdict in the centre of election disputes.

31. (b)

32. (a) In case of No-confidence motion, there is no need to

set out the grounds on which it is based. No-Confidence motion is introduced only in Lok Sabha by the opposition and needs a support of not less than 50 members of LS for its introduction.

33. (d) As per provisions given under article 67(b)

34. (b) Stock Exchange is under Union List (not Concurrent List) – Entry 48; Forests – Entry 17A, Post Office Savings Bank – Entry 39, Public Health – Entry 6

35. (b) The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Parliament, National Development Council at second position and Planning commission at third position. Economic and social planning is Entry 20 in the Concurrent list.

36. (a) 4th general elections in India-March 1967; Formation of Haryana State – Nov. 1, 1966; Mysore named as Karnataka in 1973 and Meghalaya & Tripura became full states in 1971.

37. (c)

38. (c) Chairmen of Different Committees of Constituent

Assembly: Union Power Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru, Drafting Committee – B R Ambedkar, Flag Committee – J B Kriplani, Fundamental Rights & Minority Committee

– Vallabh Bhai Patel, Provincial Constitution Committee

– Vallabh Bhai Patel.

39. (a) Agriculture (Entry 14), Fisheries (Entry 21), Public Health (Entry 6) are in the State List. Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oil fields is in the Union list under Entry 55.

40. (a) Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under article 249. Statement 2 is incorrect as resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed by both Houses of Parliament (not only LS).

41. (d) Assertion is false, because the Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only.

42. (b) GVMavalankar(l 952-56), Hukum Singh (1962-67); KM Munshi and UN Dhebar were never the speakers of Lok Sabha.

43. (a) Statement 1 is correct as under article 360, A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament. If approved by both Houses, then it operates for 6 months.

Statement 2 is incorrect as it is excluding Judges of SC and High courts; but under the provisions of effects of article 360, Judges of SC and HCs are included.

44. (a) Statement 2 is incorrect as Public accounts committee consists of 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.

45. (b) Mohd. Hidayatullah (1979-84); Shankar Dayal Sharma (1987-92)

46. (b) Statement 2 is correct as per provisions given under article 173. Statement I is incorrect as according to article 170, the legislative assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.

Statement 1 is incorrect as Advocate general of the state is appointed by the governor of the State. Statement 2 is incorrect as High courts have original, appellate and Writ jurisdiction (not advisory jurisidiction).

49. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as CAT was set up in 1985 during the Prime ministership of Rajiv Gandhi.

50. (a) The number ofministeries at the Centre vary from time to time based on factors such as volume of work, importance attached to certain items, changes of orientation etc.

51. (b) According to article 143 (Power of President to consult Supreme Court).

52. (c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees twenty lakhs.

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